# NET DECEMBER 2013 PAPER-3 SOLVED 4

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1. If the primal Linear Programming problem has unbounded solution, then it’s dual problem will have
(A) feasible solution
(B) alternative solution
(C) no feasible solution at all
(D) no bounded solution at all

Explanation:

2. Given the problem to maximize f(x), X=(x1,x2,…xn) subject to m number of inequality constraints.
gi(x)≤bi, i=1,2…..,m
including the non-negativity constraints x≥0.
Which one of the following conditions is a Kuhn-Tucker necessary condition for a local maxima at x’ ?
(A) ∂L(X’, λ’, S’)/∂xj = 0, j = 1, 2,…m
(B) λi’[gi(X’)-bi] = 0, i = 1, 2,…m
(C) gi(X’)≤bi, i = 1, 2…m
(D) All of these

Explanation:

all three mentioned conditions  are necessary for local maxima

3. The following Linear Programming problem has:
Max Z = x1+x2
Subject to x1-x2≥0
3×1-x2≤-3
and x1, x2≥0
(A) Feasible solution
(B) No feasible solution
(C) Unbounded solution
(D) Single point as solution

Explanation:

4. Given a flow graph with 10 nodes, 13 edges and one connected components, the number of regions and the number of predicate (decision) nodes in the flow graph will be
(A) 4, 5 (B) 5, 4
(C) 3, 1 (D) 13, 8

Explanation:

Predicate (decision) nodes are those nodes which has out degree atleast 2.

Region =13-10+2 = 5  [i.e. edges – vertex  + (p+1)] since p= 1]

predicate nodes(P)=

= region = P+1 = 5

P = 4

so (B) is ans.

5. Function points can be calculated by
(A) UFP*CAF (B) UFP*FAC
(C) UFP*Cost (D) UFP*Productivity
Explanation:
Function Point FP = UFP*CAF

6. Match the following:
List-I List-II
a. Data coupling                      i. Module A and Module B have
shared data
b. Stamp coupling                   ii. Dependency between modules
is based on the fact they communicate
by only passing of data.
c. Common coupling               iii. When complete data structure is
passed from one module to another.
d. Content coupling                 iv. When the control is passed from
one module to the middle of another.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii ii iv i

7. A process which defines a series of tasks that have the following four primary objectives is known as
1. to identify all items that collectively define the software configuration.
2. to manage changes to one or more of these items.
3. to facilitate the construction of different versions of an application.
4. to ensure that software quality is maintained as the configuration evolves over time.
(A) Software Quality Management Process
(B) Software Configuration Management Process
(C) Software Version Management Process
(D) Software Change Management Process

Explanation:

Software Configuration Management Process has following primary objective:

1. to identify all items that collectively define the software configuration

2. to manage changes to one or more of these items

3. to facilitate the construction of different versions of an application

4. to ensure that software quality is maintained as the configuration evolves over time

8. One weakness of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning is
(A) they are not effective.
(B) they do not explore combinations of input circumstances.
(C) they explore combinations of input circumstances
(D) none of the above

Explanation:

Both are black box testing techniques  as we only test at boundaries and at certain points

they do not explore combinations of input circumstances  for more detail

reference:  http://reqtest.se/testing-sv/what-is-boundary-value-analysis-and-equivalence-partitioning/

9. Which one of the following is not a software myth?
(A) Once we write the program and get it to work, our job is done.
(B) Project requirements continually change, but change can be easily accommodated because software is flexible.
(C) If we get behind schedule, we can add more programmers and catch up.
(D) If an organization does not understand how to control software projects internally, it will invariably struggle when it outsources software projects.

10. Match the following with respect to relationship between objects and classes:
List-I                                                      List-II
a. State diagram              i. Useful for both abstract modelling
and for designing actual program.
b. Object diagram           ii. Describes object classes.
c. Class diagram              iii. Useful for documenting test cases.
d. Instance diagram         iv. Describing the behavior of a
single class of objects.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) ii iv i iii

Explanation:

state diagram is a type of diagram used in computer science and related fields to describe the behavior of systems. State diagrams require that the system described is composed of a finite number of states;

In software engineering, a class diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a type of static structure diagram that describes the structure of a system by showing the system’s classes, their attributes, operations (or methods), and the relationships among objects.

An InstanceDiagram is a part of the UnifiedModelingLanguage that one does not see mentioned too often. The basic idea is to make a static snap shot of instances (not classes) in your system or subsystem. Make it show exactly who points to whom.

Object diagrams are derived from class diagrams so object diagrams are dependent upon class diagrams.Object diagrams represent an instance of a class diagram. The basic concepts are similar for class diagrams and object diagrams. Object diagrams also represent the static view of a system but this static view is a snapshot of the system at a particular moment.Object diagrams are used to render a set of objects and their relationships as an instance.

11. Match the following style rules for reusability:
List-I                                                                List-II
a. Keep methods coherent                        i. Write a method to get the
last element of a list.
b. Keep methods small                             ii. Maintain parallel structure
when possible.
c. Keep methods consistent                     iii. Breaking a method into
smaller parts.
d. Provide uniform coverage                     iv. Perform a single function or
a group of closely related functions.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) ii iii iv i

Explanation:

Keep methods coherent  —>    Performs a single function or a group of a closely related functions

Keep methods small—-> Breaking a method into smaller parts

Keep methods consistent—>Maintain parallel structure when possible

Provide uniform coverage—>Write a method to get the last element of a list

12. Which is the protocol for performing RPCs between applications in a language and system independent way?
(A) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol (HTTP)
(B) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
(C) Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
(D) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

Explanation:

SOAP is an acronym for Simple Object Access Protocol. It is an XML-based messaging protocol for exchanging information among computers. SOAP is an application of the XML specification.

Although SOAP can be used in a variety of messaging systems and can be delivered via a variety of transport protocols, the initial focus of SOAP is remote procedure calls(RPC) transported via HTTP.

13. The document that is used by XSLT to indicate, how to transform the elements of the XML document to another format is
(A) HTML page (B) DOC type procedure
(C) Style sheet (D) Stored procedure

Explanation:

under XSLT, a XSLT stylesheet is used to describe transformation rules in XML format. This is read by an application called an “XSLT Processor,” transforming a designated XML document. The transformation results are output in XML, HTML or text format.

14. Which of the following concepts means adding new concepts to a program as it runs?
(C) Dynamic typing (D) Dynamic binding

Explanation:

Dynamic loading is a mechanism by which a computer program can, at run time, load a library (or other binary) into memory, retrieve the addresses of functions and variables contained in the library, execute those functions or access those variables, and unload the library from memory.

In OOPs Dynamic Binding refers to linking a procedure call to the code that will be executed only at run time. The code associated with the procedure in not known until the program is executed, which is also known as late binding.

(A) Virtual polymorphism
(B) Transient polymorphism
(D) Pseudo polymorphism

Explanation:

These polymorphisms also go by different names in C++,

• Subtype polymorphism is also known as runtime polymorphism.
• Parametric polymorphism is also known as compile-time polymorphism.
• Coercion is also known as (implicit or explicit) casting.

16. Match the following with respect to programming languages:
List-I                                                                       List-II
a. Structured Language                                        i. JAVA
b. Non-structured Language                               ii. BASIC
c. Object oriented Programming Language        iii. PASCAL
d. Interpreted Programming Language               iv. FORTRAN
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) ii iii iv i

17. The compiler converts all operands upto the type of the largest operand is called
(A) Type Promotion (B) Type Evaluation
(C) Type Conversion (D) Type Declaration

18. C++ actually supports the following two complete dynamic allocation systems:
(A) One defined by C++ and the other not defined by C.
(B) One defined by C and one specific to C++.
(C) Both are specific to C++
(D) Both of them are improvements of C.

19. Important advantage of using new and delete operation in C++ is
(A) Allocation of memory
(B) Frees the memory previously allocated
(C) Initialization of memory easily
(D) Allocation of memory and frees the memory previously allocated.

20. Match the following control strategies of prolog:
List-I                                                       List-II
a. Forward movement                       i. Variable can be done with a
constant, another variable
or a function
b. Unification                                     ii. The entire conjunctive goal is
executed.
c. Deep backtracking                         iii. Previous sub goal to find
alternative solutions.
d. Shallow backtracking                     iv. Choose sub goal with possible
unifier.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iii iv i

21. Given the following statements:
S1 : The grammars S→asb | bsa | ss | a and S→asb | bsa | a are not equivalent.
S2: The grammars S→ss | sss | asb | bsa | λ and S→ss | asb | bsa | λ are equivalent.
Which of the following is true?
(A) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) Both S1 and S2 are correct
(C) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct
(D) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.

22. What are the final values of Q1 and Q0 after 4 clock cycles, if initial values are 00 in the sequential circuit shown below:

(A) 11 (B) 10
(C) 01 (D) 00

Explanation:

• T flip flop toggles the state if input T is 1, and does not change state if input T is 0.
• T flip flop is a clocked (synchronous or edge-triggered) flip flop.
• Edge triggered flip flops can only change its values at the edge of a clock, in absence of edge does not change its state, remains same.
• In given circuit, clock symbol is showing that it is positive edge triggering (low to high change).

Now, we need to find out Q0Q1 after 4 clock cycles.
Initial: 00 States Q0 and Q1 are zero
Clock 1: 11 State Q0 changed to 1 because input T is 1 and previous state was 0 and State Q1 changed to 1 because input T is 1 and previous state was 0.
Clock 2: 01 State Q0 changed to 0 because input T is 1 and previous state was 1 and State Q1 remains same because clk value is 0.
Clock 3: 10 State Q0 changed to 1 because input T is 1 and previous state was 0 and State Q1 changed to 0 because input T is 1 and previous state was 1.
Clock 4: 00 State Q0 changed to 0 because input T is 1 and previous state was 1 and State Q1 remains same because clk value is 0.

23. High level knowledge which relates to the use of sentences in different contexts and how the context affect the meaning of the sentences?
(A) Morphological (B) Syntactic
(C) Semantic (D) Pragmatic

24. The objective of ……………… procedure is to discover at least one …………… that causes two literals to match.
(A) unification, validation
(B) unification, substitution
(C) substitution, unification
(D) minimax, maximum

25. If h* represents an estimate of the cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node and h represents actual cost of getting from current node to the goal node, then A* algorithm gives an optimal solution if
(A) h* us equal to h
(B) h* overestimates h
(C) h* underestimates h
(D) none of these

26. The mean-end analysis process centers around the detection of differences between the current state and the goal state. Once such a difference is isolated, an operator that can reduce the difference must be found. But perhaps that operator cannot be applied to the current state. So a sub-problem of getting to a state in which it can be applied is set up. The kind of backward chaining in which operators are selected and then sub goals are set up to establish the precondition of operators is called
(A) backward planning (B) goal stack planning

27. In alpha-beta pruning, …………… is used to cut off the search at maximizing level only and …………….. is used to cut off the search at minimizing level only.
(A) alpha, beta (B) beta, alpha
(C) alpha, alpha (D) beta, beta

28. If A and B are two fuzzy sets with membership functions
µA(X) = {0.2, 0.5, 0.6, 0.1, 0.9}
µB(X) = {0.1, 0.5, 0.2, 0.7, 0.8}
Then the value of µA∩B will be
(A) {0.2, 0.5, 0.6, 0.7, 0.9}
(B) {0.2, 0.5, 0.2, 0.1, 0.8}
(C) {0.1, 0.5, 0.6, 0.1, 0.8}
(D) {0.1, 0.5, 0.2, 0.1, 0.8}
Explanation:
μA∩B(x) = min [μA(x), μB(x)]

29. The height of h(A) of a fuzzy set A is defined as
h(A) = sup A(x)
xϵA
Then the fuzzy set A is called normal when
(A) h(A) = 0 (B) h(A) < 0
(C) h(A) = 1 (D) h(A) < 1

30. An artificial neurons receives n inputs x1, x2,…,xn with weights w1,w2,…,wn attached to the input links. The weighted sum …………… is computed to be passed on to a non-linear filter ϕ called activation function to release the output.
(A) Σ wi (B) Σ xi
(C) Σ wi + Σ xi (D) Σ wi . Σ xi

31. Consider the formula in image processing
RD = 1 – (1/CR) Where CR = n1/n2
CR is called as compression ratio n1 and n2 denotes the number of information carrying units in two datasets that represent the same information. In this situation RD is called as relative ……………. of the first data set.
(A) Data Compression (B) Data Redundancy
(C) Data Relation (D) Data Representation

32. Find the false statement:
(A) In Modern Cryptography, symmetric key algorithms use same key both for Encryption and Decryption.
(B) The Symmetric cipher DES (Data Encryption Standard) was widely used in the industry for security product.
(C) The AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) cryptosystem allows variable key lengths of size 56 bits and 124 bits.
(D) Public key algorithms use two different keys for Encryption and Decryption.

33. The message 11001001 is to be transmitted using the CRC polynomial x3+1 to protect it from errors. The message that should be transmitted is
(A) 110010011001
(B) 11001001
(C) 110010011001001
(D) 11001001011

34. ………………. comparisons are necessary in the worst case to find both the maximum and minimum of n numbers.
(A) 2n-2
(B) n + floor(lg n) – 2
(C) floor(3n/2) – 2
(D) 2 lg n – 2

35. Let A and B be two n x n matrices. The efficient algorithm to multiply the two matrices has the time complexity
(A) O(n3) (B) O(n2.81)
(C) O(n2.67) (D) O(n2)

36. The recurrence relation T(n)=mT(n/2)an2 is satisfied by
(A) O(n2) (B) O(nlg m)
(C) O(n2 lg n) (D) O(n lg n)

Explanation

Master Method is a direct way to get the solution. The master method works only for following type of recurrences

T(n) = aT(n/b) + f(n)

highest degree of f(n) is c.

There are following three cases:
T(n)= O(nc) where a<bc                       eq 1.

T(n)= O(nc log n) where bc=a. eq 2.

T(n)=O(nlogba) where a> bc.             eq 3

In our case

T(n)=mT(n/2)tan2

value of a is m, not known.  so we cannot say  a= 2^C OR NOT  . WE CAN NOT SAY WHICH EQUATION WILL FOLLOW.

37. The longest common subsequence of the sequences X=<A, B, C, B, D, A, B> and Y=<B, D, C, A, B, A> has length
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

38. Assuming there are n keys and each keys is in the range [0, m-1]. The run time of bucket sort is
(A) O(n) (B) O(n lgn)
(C) O(n lgm) (D) O(n+m)

39. A …………….. complete subgraph and a …………….. subset of vertices of a graph G=(V,E) are a clique and a vertex cover respectively.
(A) minimal, maximal (B) minimal, minimal
(C) maximal, maximal (D) maximal, minimal

40. Pumping lemma of the context-free languages states:
Let L be an infinite context free language. Then there exists some positive integer m such that wϵL with |w|≥m can be decomposed as w=uv xy Z with |vxy| …………….. and |vy| ……………. such that uvz’xyz’ , ZϵL for all z’ = 0,1, 2,…
(A) ≤m, ≤1 (B) ≤m, ≥1
(C) ≥m, ≤1 (D) ≥m, ≥1

1. The Greibach normal form grammar for the language L={an bn+1|n≥0} is

(A) S→a SB, B→bB|λ

(B) S→a SB, B→bB|b

(C) S→a SB|b, B→b

(D) S→a Sb|b

1. Given the following statements:

S1: Every context-sensitive language L is recursive.

S2: There exists a recursive language that is not context sensitive.

Which statement is correct?

(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.

(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.

(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.

(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.

1. What is the bit rate for transmitting uncompressed 800×600 pixel colour frames with 8 bits/pixel at 40 frames/second ?

(A) 2.4 Mbps                 (B) 15.36 Mbps

(C) 153.6 Mbps                        (D) 1536 Mbps

Explanation:

The number of bits/sec is just 800x600x40x8 or 153.6 Mbps.

1. In IPV 4, the IP address 200.200.200.200 belongs to

(A) Class A       (B) Class B

(C) Class C       (D) Class D

1. Which layer of OSI reference model is responsible for decomposition of messages and generation of sequence numbers to ensure correct re-composition from end to end of the network?

(C) Transport    (D) Application

1. A client-server system uses a satellite network, with the satellite at a height of 40,000 kms. What is the best-case delay in response to a request? (Note that the speed of light in air is 3,00,000 km/second).

(A) 133.33 m sec          (B) 266.67 m sec

(C) 400.00 m sec         (D) 533.33 m sec

Explanation:

The request has to go up and down, and the response has to go up and down. The total

path length traversed is thus 160.000 km. The speed of light in air and vacuum is

300,000 km/sec, so the propagation delay alone is 160,000/300,000 sec or about 533 msec.

1. The start and stop bits are used in serial communication for

(A) error detection        (B) error correction

(C) synchronization    (D) slowing down the communication

1. ………………… is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium.

(A) Attenuation                        (B) Distortion

(C) Noise                       (D) Decibel

1. Match the following:

List-I                                          List-II

1. Indexed Addressing           i. is not used when an operand is

moved from memory into a register

or from a register to memory.                                                                   2.Direct Addressing               ii. Memory address is computed by

an (optional) offset.                                                                                3. Register Addressing           iii. Addressing memory by giving a

register plus a content offset.                                                                4.Base-Indexed

Addressing                                  iv. can only be used to access

is known at compile time.

Codes:

a  b   c   d

(A) ii   i    iv  iii

(B) ii   iv  i    iii

(C) iii  iv  i    ii

(D) iii  i   iv   ii

1. Which of the following is a design criteria for instruction formats?

(A) The size of instructions

(B) The numbers of bits in the address fields

(C) The sufficient space in the instruction format to express all the operations desired.

(D) All of these

1. Synchronization is achieved by a timing device called a …………….. which generates a periodic train of ………………

(A) clock generator, clock pulse

(B) master generator, clock pulse

(C) generator, clock

(D) master clock generator, clock pulse

1. Serial access memories are useful in applications where

(A) Data consists of numbers

(B) Short access time is required.

(C) Each stored word is processed differently.

(D) None of these

Explanation:

data naturally needs to flow in and out in serial form.

1. What will be the output of the following logic diagram?

(A) x OR y         (B) x AND y

(C) x NOR y      (D) x XNOR y

1. The essential difference between traps and interrupts is

(A) traps are asynchronous and interrupts are synchronous with the program

(B) traps are synchronous and interrupts are asynchronous with the program

(C) traps are synchronous and interrupts are asynchronous with the I/O devices.

(D) None of these.

1. Consider the following ER diagram:

The minimum number of tables required to represent M, N, P, R1, R2 is

(A) 2       (B) 3

(C) 4       (D) 5

1. Consider the following schemas:

Branch = (Branch-name, Assets, Branch-city)

Customer = (Customer-name, Bank-name, Customer-city)

Borrow = (Branch-name, loan-number, customer account-number)

Deposit = (Branch-name, Account-number, Customer-name, Balance)

Using relational Algebra, the query that finds customers who have balance more than 10,000 is ……………..

(A) πcustomer-namebalance >10000(Deposit))

(B) σcustomer-namebalance >10000(Deposit))

(C) πcustomer-namebalance >10000(Borrow))

(D) σcustomer-namebalance >10000(Borrow))

1. Find the false statement:

(A) The relationship construct known as the weak relationship type was defined by Dey, Storey & Barron (1999).

(B) A weak relationship occurs when two relationship types are linked by either Event-Precedent sequence or Condition-Precedent sequence

(C) Conceptual model is not accurate representation of “Universe of interest”.

(D) Ternary, Quaternary and Quintary relationships are shown through a series of application scenario’s and vignette’s

1. Consider the table

Student(stuid, name, course, marks). Which one of the following two queries is correct to find the highest marks student in course 5?

Q.1.        Select S.stuid

From student S

Where not exists

(select * from student e where e course=’5′ and e marks ≥ s marks)

Q.2.        Select S.stuid

From student S

Where s.marks > any (select distinct marks from student S where s.couse = 5)

(A) Q.1

(B) Q.2

(C) Both Q.1 and Q.2

(D) Neither Q.1 nor Q.2

Explanation:

First query gives stuid of students whose marks are greater than all students taking course 5. Second query gives stuid of students whose marks are greater than any student taking course 5, that is in second query comparison is between min of marks by student enrolled in course 5 and in query one comparison is between maximum of marks by any student in course 5. So the answer is option D.

1. Armstrong (1974) proposed systematic approach to derive functional dependencies. Match the following w.r.t. functional dependencies.

List – I                            List – II

1. Decomposition rule                        i. If X→Y and Z→W then {X, Z}→{Y, W}
2. Union rule                            ii. If X→Y and {Y, W}→Z then {X, W}→Z
3. Composition rule                 iii. If X→Y and X→Z then X→{Y, Z}
4. Pseudo transitivity rule      iv. If X→{Y, Z} then X→Y and X→Z

Codes:

a   b   c   d

(A) iii   ii   iv   i

(B) i    iii   iv  ii

(C) ii   i    iii   iv

(D) iv  iii   i   ii

1. Match the following:

List – I                                                   List – II

1. Secondary Index                             i. Functional Dependency
2. Non-procedural Query                   ii. B-tree
3. Closure of set of Attributes                        iii. Relational Algebraic Operation
4. Natural JOIN                                                iv. Domain Calculus

Codes:

a   b  c   d

(A) i   ii   iv  iii

(B) ii   i   iv  iii

(C) i   iii  iv  ii

(D) ii  iv  i    iii

1. Which of the following is not true with respect to a trackball and/or spaceball ?                         I. A trackball is a two dimensional positioning device while as a spaceball provides six degrees of freedom                                                                                                                                              ii.  Unlike the trackball a spaceball does not actually move.

III. A trackball is a three dimensional positioning device while as a spaceball provides six degrees of freedom.

(A) I & II              (B) II & III

(C) II only          (D) III only

1. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true?                                                                           I. Two successive translations are additive.                                                                                 II. Two successive rotations are additive.                                                                                        III. Two successive scaling operations are multiplicative.

(A) I and II         (B) I and III

(C) II and III       (D) All the above.

1. Given below are three basic rules:                                                                                            I. Squash and Stretch                                                                                                                 II. Slow-in and Slow-out                                                                                                                      III. To stage the action properly

These rules are applied in case of

(A) Rendering  (B) Morphing

(C) Animation   (D) All the above

1. Which of the following points lies on the same side as the origin, with reference to the line 3x+7y=2 ?

(A) (3, 0)            (B) (1, 0)

(C) (0.5, 0.5)      (D) (0.5, 0)

Explanation:

If (0.5, 0) is substituted in the equation, we get 1.5 which is less than 2, then it lies on the same side as that of the origin.

1. The transformation matrix required for conversion of CMY colour model to RGB colour model is given as

1. What steps shall be required to rotate an object about the point P1 (as shown in fig.1) and its placement such that what was at P1 is now reduced and is at P2 (as shown in fig.2).

(I)Translate P1 to origin
(II)Scale as required
(III) Rotate
(IV) Translate to the final position P2.

(A) I,II and III     (B) II,III and IV

(C) I,III and IV   (D) All of the above

1. In Unix, how do you check that two given strings a and b are equal ?

(A) test \$a -eq \$b

(B) test \$a -equal \$b

(C) test \$a=\$b

(D) Sh -C test \$a==\$b

Explanation:

Tests for a zero-length string:            test -z string

Tests for a nonzero string length:     test -n string

Tests two strings for equality:            test string1 = string2

Tests two strings for inequality:        test string1 != string2

Tests for a nonzero string length:     test string

1. In windows 2000 operating system all the processor-dependent code is isolated in a dynamic link library called

(A) NTFS file system   (B) Hardware abstraction layer

(C) Microkernel                        (D) Process Manager

1. To place a sound into a word document, following feature of windows is used:

(A) Clip board   (B) Task switching

(C) C Win App  (D) OLE

1. Translation Look-aside Buffer(TLB) is

(A) a cache-memory in which item to be searched is compared one-by-one with the keys.

(B) a cache-memory in which item to be searched is compared with all the keys simultaneously.

(C) an associative memory in which item to be searched is compared one-by-one with the keys.

(D) an associative memory in which item to be searched is compared  with all the keys simultaneously.

1. Simplest way of deadlock recovery is

(A) Roll back

(B) Preempt resource

(C) Lock one of the processes

(D) Kill one of the processes

1. The directory structure used in Unix file system is called

(A) Hierarchical directory

(B) Tree structured directory

(C) Directed acyclic graph

(D) Graph structured directory

1. Which statement is not true about process 0 in the Unix operating system?

(A) Process 0 is called init process.

(B) Process 0 is not created by fork system call.

(C) After forking process 1, process 0 becomes swapper process.

(D) Process 0 is a special process created when system boots.

1. Which of the following commands would return process_id of sleep command?

(A) Sleep 1 and echo \$?

(B) Sleep 1 and echo \$#

(C) Sleep 1 and echo \$x

(D) Sleep 1 and echo \$!

1. Possible thread states in Windows 2000 operating system include: