NET JUNE 2014 PAPER-3 SOLVED 7


  1. Beam-penetration and shadow-mask are the two basic techniques for producing color displays with a CRT.

     Which of the following is not true ?

  1. The beam-penetration is used with random scan monitors.
  2. Shadow-mask is used in raster scan systems.

    3 Beam-penetration method is better than shadow-mask method.                                                       4 Shadow-mask method is better than beam-penetration method.

(A) I and II         (B) II and III

(C) III only         (D) IV only

Answer: C


  1. Line caps are used for adjusting the shape of the line ends to give them a better appearance. Various kinds of line caps used are

(A) Butt cap and sharp cap

(B) Butt cap and round cap

(C) Butt cap, sharp cap and round cap

(D) Butt cap, round cap and projecting square cap

Answer: D


  1. Given below are certain output primitives and their associated attributes. Match each primitive with its corresponding attributes :

List – I               List – II

  1. Line               i. Type, Size, Color
  2. Fill Area        ii. Color, Size, Font
  3. Text                iii. Style, Color, Pattern
  4. Marker           iv. Type, Width, Color

Codes :

a    b   c   d

(A) i    ii   iii   iv

(B) ii    i   iii   iv

(C) iv  iii   ii   i

(D) iii   i   iv   ii

Answer: C


  1. Consider a window bounded by the lines : x = 0; y= 0; x = 5 and y = 3. The line segment joining (–1, 0) and (4, 5), if clipped against this window will connect the points

(A) (0, 1) and (2, 3)

(B) (0, 1) and (3, 3)

(C) (0, 1) and (4, 3)

(D) (0, 1) and (3, 2)

Answer: A


  1. Which of the following color models are defined with three primary colors ?

(A) RGB and HSV color models

(B) CMY and HSV color models

(C) HSV and HLS color models

(D) RGB and CMY color models

Answer: D


  1. In a digital transmission, the receiver clock is 0.1 percent faster than the sender clock. How many extra bits per second does the receiver receive if the data rate is 1 Mbps ?

(A) 10 bps         (B) 100 bps

(C) 1000 bps     (D) 10000 bps

Answer: C


  1. Given U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}

A = {(3, 0.7), (5, 1), (6, 0.8)}

then A~ will be : (where ~ ® complement)

(A) {(4, 0.7), (2, 1), (1, 0.8)}

(B) {(4, 0.3), (5, 0), (6, 0.2) }

(C) {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 0.3), (4, 1), (6, 0.2), (7, 1)}

(D) {(3, 0.3), (6.0.2)}

Answer: C

click here for Check Explanation


  1. Consider a fuzzy set old as defined below

Old = {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2), (40, 0.4), (50, 0.6), (60, 0.8), (70, 1), (80, 1)}

Then the alpha-cut for alpha = 0.4 for the set old will be

(A) {(40, 0.4)}

(B) {50, 60, 70, 80}

(C) {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2)}

(D) {(20, 0), (30, 0), (40, 1), (50, 1), (60, 1), (70, 1), (80, 1)}

Answer: D

click here for Check Explanation


  1. Perceptron learning, Delta learning and LMS learning are learning methods which falls under the category of

(A) Error correction learning – learning with a teacher

(B) Reinforcement learning – learning with a critic

(C) Hebbian learning

(D) Competitive learning – learning without a teacher

Answer: A


  1. Code blocks allow many algorithms to be implemented with the following parameters :

(A) clarity, elegance, performance

(B) clarity, elegance, efficiency

(C) elegance, performance, execution

(D) execution, clarity, performance

Answer: B


  1. Match the following with respect to the jump statements :

List – I                           List – II

  1. return                         i. The conditional test and increment portions
  2. goto                            ii. A value associated with it
  3. break                          iii. Requires a label for operation
  4. continue                   iv. An exit from only the innermost loop

Codes :

a   b    c   d

(A) ii    iii   iv   i

(B) iii   iv   i    ii

(C) iv   iii   ii   i

(D) iv   iii   i    ii

Answer: A


  1. The control string in C++ consists of three important classifications of characters

(A) Escape sequence characters, Format specifiers and Whitespace characters

(B) Special characters, White-space characters and Non-white space characters

(C) Format specifiers, White-space characters and Non-white space characters

(D) Special characters, White-space characters and Format specifiers

Answer: C


  1. Match the following with respect to I/O classes in object oriented programming :

List – I               List – II

  1. fopen()          i. returns end of file
  2. fclose()          ii. return for any problem report
  3. ferror()            iii. returns 0
  4. feof()              iv. returns a file pointer

Codes :

a    b    c    d

(A) iv    i     ii    iii

(B) iii    i    iv   ii

(C) ii    iii   iv    i

(D) iv   iii   i     ii

Answer: A


  1. Which one of the following describes the syntax of prolog program ?                                          I. Rules and facts are terminated by full stop (.)                                                                             II. Rules and facts are terminated by semicolon (;)

III. Variables names must start with upper case alphabets.

IV. Variables names must start with lower case alphabets.

Codes :

(A) I, II                (B) III, IV

(C) I, III               (D) II, IV

Answer: C


  1. Let L be any language. Define even (W) as the strings obtained by extracting from W the letters in the even-numbered positions and even(L) = {even (W) | W Î L}. We define another language Chop (L) by removing the two leftmost symbols of every string in L given by Chop(L) = {W | n W Î L, with | n | = 2}. If L is regular language then

(A) even(L) is regular and Chop(L) is not regular.

(B) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are regular.

(C) even(L) is not regular and Chop(L) is regular.

(D) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are not regular.

Answer: B


  1. Software testing is

(A) the process of establishing that errors are not present.

(B) the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do.

(C) the process of executing a program to show that it is working as per specifications.

(D) the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors.

Answer: D


  1. Assume that a program will experience 200 failures in infinite time. It has now experienced 100 failures. The initial failure intensity was 20 failures/CPU hr. Then the current failure intensity will be

(A) 5 failures/CPU hr

(B) 10 failures/CPU hr.

(C) 20 failures/CPU hr.

(D) 40 failures/CPU hr.

Answer: B


  1. Consider a project with the following functional units :

Number of user inputs = 50

Number of user outputs = 40

Number of user enquiries = 35

Number of user files = 06

Number of external interfaces = 04

Assuming all complexity adjustment factors and weighing factors as average, the function points for the project will be

(A) 135   (B) 722

(C) 675 (D) 672

Answer: D


  1. Match the following :

List – I                           List – II

  1. Correctness              i. The extent to which a software tolerates the

unexpected problems

  1. Accuracy                   ii. The extent to which a software meets its

specifications

  1. Robustness              iii. The extent to which a software has specified

functions

  1. Completeness         iv. Meeting specifications with precision

Codes :

a    b   c    d

(A) ii    iv    i    iii

(B) i     ii    iii   iv

(C) ii    i     iv   iii

(D) iv  ii     i     iii

Answer: A


  1. Which one of the following is not a definition of error ?

(A) It refers to the discrepancy between a computed, observed or measured value and the true, specified or theoretically correct value.

(B) It refers to the actual output of a software and the correct output.

(C) It refers to a condition that causes a system to fail.

(D) It refers to human action that results in software containing a defect or fault.

Answer: C


  1. Which one of the following is not a key process area in CMM level 5 ?

(A) Defect prevention

(B) Process change management

(C) Software product engineering

(D) Technology change management

Answer: C


  1. Consider the following relational schemas for a library database :

Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no, Publisher, Year, Price)

Collection(Title, Author, Catalog_no)

with the following functional dependencies :

  1. Title, Author ® Catalog_no
  2. Catalog_no ® Title, Author, Publisher, Year

III. Publisher, Title, Year ® Price

Assume (Author, Title) is the key for both schemas. Which one of the following is true ?

(A) Both Book and Collection are in BCNF.

(B) Both Book and Collection are in 3NF.

(C) Book is in 2NF and Collection in 3NF.

(D) Both Book and Collection are in 2NF.

Answer: C


  1. Specialization Lattice stands for

(A) An entity type can participate as a subclass in only one specialization.

(B) An entity type can participate as a subclass in more than one specialization.

(C) An entity type that can participate in one specialization.

(D) An entity type that can participate in one generalization.

Answer: B


  1. Match the following :

List – I                                                   List – II

  1. Timeout ordering protocol              i. Wait for graph
  2. Deadlock prevention                      ii. Roll back
  3. Deadlock detection                         iii. Wait-die scheme
  4. Deadlock recovery                          iv. Thomas Write Rule

Codes :

a   b   c   d

(A) iv   iii  i     ii

(B) iii   ii   iv   i

(C) ii    i   iv   iii

(D) iii   i   iv   iii

Answer: A


  1. Consider the schema R = {S, T, U, V} and the dependencies S ® T, T ® U, U ® V and V ® S If R = (R1 and R2) be a decomposition such that R1 Ç R2 = f then the decomposition is

(A) not in 2NF

(B) in 2NF but not in 3NF

(C) in 3NF but not in 2NF

(D) in both 2NF and 3NF

Answer: D

Explanation.

Let the R1={S,T}

R2={u,v}

S-> T. all the non key are fully functional dependent on key . hence R1 is in 2nf. Not transitive dependency hence 3nf.

Similarly R2.


  1. Which one of the following is not a Client-Server application ?

(A) Internet chat           (B) Web browser

(C) E-mail                      (D) Ping

Answer: D

Explanation: Ping is not a client server application. Ping is a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP). In ping, there is no server that provides a service.


  1. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock :                                                                                                                                  I. 2-phase locking                                                                                                                           II. Time phase ordering

(A) Both I & II    (B) II only

(C) I only           (D) Neither I nor II

Answer: B


  1. Match the following :

List – I                           List – II

  1. Expert systems        i. Pragmatics
  2. Planning                   ii. Resolution
  3. Prolog                        iii. Means-end analysis
  4. Natural language processing         iv. Explanation facility

Codes :

a    b   c   d

(A) iii   iv   i    ii

(B) iii   iv   ii    i

(C) i    ii    iii   iv

(D) iv  iii    ii    i

Answer: D


  1. STRIPS addresses the problem of efficiently representing and implementation of a planner. It is not related to which one of the following ?

(A) SHAKEY     (B) SRI

(C) NLP             (D) None of these

Answer: C


  1. Slots and facets are used in

(A) Semantic Networks           (B) Frames

(C) Rules                                  (D) All of these

Answer: B


  1. Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N) Where function g is a measure of the cost of getting from the start node to the current node N and h is an estimate of additional cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in which one of the following algorithms ?

(A) A* algorithm

(B) AO* algorithm

(C) Greedy best first search algorithm

(D) Iterative A* algorithm

Answer: C


  1. ………….. predicate calculus allows quantified variables to refer to objects in the domain of discourse and not to predicates or functions.

(A) Zero-order               (B) First-order

(C) Second-order         (D) High-order

Answer: B


  1. ……………. is used in game trees to reduce the number of branches of the search tree to be traversed without affecting the solution.

(A) Best first search

(B) Goal stack planning

(C) Alpha-beta pruning procedure

(D) Min-max search

Answer: C


  1. Consider a uniprocessor system where new processes arrive at an average of five processes per minute and each process needs an average of 6 seconds of service time. What will be the CPU utilization ?

(A) 80 %            (B) 50 %

(C) 60 %            (D) 30 %

Answer: B

EXPLANATION:

Arrival time process
0 P0
12 P1
24 P2
36 P3
48 P4
60 P5

Gantt chart.

1—–6(p0)—-12(idle)—–18(p1)—–24(idle)—–30(p2)—–36(idle)—–42(p3)—–48(idle)——-54(p4)——-60(idle)——-66(p5).


  1. Consider a program that consists of 8 pages (from 0 to 7) and we have 4 page frames in the physical memory for the pages. The page reference string is :

1 2 3 2 5 6 3 4 6 3 7 3 1 5 3 6 3 4 2 4 3 4 5 1

The number of page faults in LRU and optimal page replacement algorithms are respectively (without including initial page faults to fill available page frames with pages):

(A) 9 and 6        (B) 10 and 7

(C) 9 and 7        (D) 10 and 6

Answer: B


  1. Which of the following statements is not true about disk-arm scheduling algorithms ?

(A) SSTF (shortest seek time first) algorithm increases performance of FCFS.

(B) The number of requests for disk service are not influenced by file allocation method.

(C) Caching the directories and index blocks in main memory can also help in reducing disk arm movements.

(D) SCAN and C-SCAN algorithms are less likely to have a starvation problem.

Answer: B


  1. …………….. maintains the list of free disk blocks in the Unix file system.

(A) I-node                      (B) Boot block

(C) Super block            (D) File allocation table

Answer: C


  1. A part of Windows 2000 operating system that is not portable is

(A) Device Management

(B) Virtual Memory Management

(C) Processor Management

(D) User Interface

Answer: B


  1. Match the following with reference to Unix shell scripts :

List – I               List – II

  1. $?                   i. File name of the current script
  2. $#                   ii. List of arguments
  3. $0                   iii. The number of arguments
  4. $*                    iv. Exit status of last command

Codes :

a    b   c   d

(A) iii    ii   i    iv

(B) ii    iii   i    iv

(C) iv   iii   i    ii

(D) i     iii   i    iv

Answer: C


  1. The advantage of …………… is that it can reference memory without paying the price of having a full memory address in the instruction.

(A) Direct addressing              (B) Indexed addressing

(C) Register addressing         (D) Register Indirect addressing

Answer: D


  1. The reverse polish notation equivalent to the infix expression

((A + B) * C + D)/(E + F + G)

(A) A B + C * D + EF + G + /

(B) A B + C D * + E F + G + /

(C) A B + C * D + E F G + +/

(D) A B + C * D + E + F G + /

Answer: A

Explanation:-

First, always the expression given within parenthesis is converted first. Since there are 2 expressions with the parenthesis, I am going with the expression (E + F + G) first, although the order does not matter.

In the expression (E + F + G), there are 3 operands E,F and G and two operators, both being +. Since both the operators are the same, the expression is going to be evaluated from left to right. So E + F is considered first and converted into postfix form which is EF+. So, the expression becomes,

( ( A + B ) * C + D) / ([E F +] + G)

Any expression converted into postfix form is going to be written in square brackets.

( ( A + B ) * C + D) / [ E F + G + ]
. Here EF+ is one operand, G is another operand and + is the operator.

The next expression to be converted into postfix is ( A + B).

( [ A B + ] * C + D) / [ E F + G + ]

Now, the expression which is enclosed in parenthesis is evaluated and so, we get

( [ [ A B + ] C * ] + D) / [ E F + G + ]

[ A B + C * D + ] / [ E F + G + ]

[ A B + C * D + ] [ E F + G + ] /

So, the final postfix expression is A B + C * D + E F + G + /. 


  1. The output of a sequential circuit depends on

(A) present input only

(B) past input only

(C) both present and past input

(D) past output only

Answer: C


  1. A byte addressable computer has a memory capacity of 2 m Kbytes and can perform 2 n operations. An instruction involving 3 operands and one operator needs a maximum of

(A) 3m bits                     (B) m + n bits

(C) 3m + n bits              (D) 3m + n + 30 bits

Answer: D

Memory capacity  is 2m Kbytes= 2m+10bytes.  Whole memory can be represented by m+10 bits.

2n operations can be represented by n bits.

Now instruction of form

Instruction op1,op2,op3. Will take  3m+30+n bits


  1. Which of the following flip-flops is free from race condition ?

(A) T flip-flop

(B) SR flip-flop

(C) Master-slave JK flip-flop

(D) None of the above

Answer: D


  1. One of the main features that distinguish microprocessor from micro-computers is

(A) words are usually larger in microprocessors.

(B) words are shorter in microprocessors.

(C) microprocessor does not contain I/O devices.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: C


  1. The output generated by the LINUX command :

$ seq 1 2 10

will be

(A) 1 2 10

(B) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

(C) 1 3 5 7 9

(D) 1 5 10

Answer: C


  1. All the classes necessary for windows programming are available in the module :

(A) win.txt          (B) win.main

(C) win.std        (D) MFC

Answer: A


  1. Windows 32 API supports

(A) 16-bit Windows      (B) 32-bit Windows

(C) 64-bit Windows     (D) All of the above

Answer: D


  1. Superficially the term “object-oriented”, means that, we organize software as a

(A) collection of continuous objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.

(B) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both discrete structure and behaviour.

(C) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.

(D) collection of objects that incorporates both discrete data structure and behaviour.

Answer: C


  1. The “part-whole”, or “a-part-of”, relationship in which objects representing the components of something associated with an object representing the entire assembly is called as

(A) Association                        (B) Aggregation

(C) Encapsulation       (D) Generalisation

Answer: B


  1. The pure object oriented programming language with extensive metadata available and modifiable at run time is

(A) Small talk    (B) C++

(C) Java             (D) Eiffel

Answer: A


  1. Match the following interfaces of Java. Servlet package :

List – I                           List – II

  1. Servlet Config          i. Enables Servlets to log events
  2. Servlet Context        ii. Read data from a client
  3. Servlet Request       iii. Write data to a client
  4. Servlet Response   iv. To get initialization parameters

Codes :

a    b    c    d

(A) iii    iv   ii     i

(B) iii    ii    iv    i

(C) ii    iii    iv    i

(D) iv    i    ii    iii

Answer: D


  1. The syntax of capturing events method for document object is

(A) CaptureEvents()

(B) CaptureEvents(Orgs eventType)

(C) CaptureEvents(eventType)

(D) CaptureEvents(eventVal)

Answer: C


  1. Linking to another place in the same or another webpage require two A (Anchor) tags, the first with the …………….. attribute and the second with the ……………. attribute.

(A) NAME & LINK

(B) LINK & HREF

(C) HREF & NAME

(D) TARGET & VALUE

Answer: C


  1. Given an image of size 1024 × 1024 pixels in which intensity of each pixel is an 8-bit quality. It requires …………… of storage space if the image is not compressed.

(A) one Terabyte          (B) one Megabyte

(C) 8 Megabytes          (D) 8 Terabytes

Answer: B

Explanation.

Each pixel needs to store 1 Byte( 8 bit)

Total 1024 x 1024 pixels

Total storage space = 1024 x 1024 x 1 = 2 10 x 2 10 x 1 = 2 20 = 1 MB


 

  1. Match the following cryptographic algorithms with their design issues :

List – I               List – II

  1. DES               i. Message Digest
  2. AES               ii. Public Key
  3. RSA               iii. 56-bit key
  4. SHA-1           iv. 128-bit key

Codes :

a    b    c    d

(A) ii     i    iv    iii

(B) iii    i    iv    ii

(C) iii    iv   ii    i

(D) iv    i    ii    iii

Answer: C


  1. Consider a code with five valid code words of length ten :

0000000000, 0000011111, 1111100000, 1110000011, 1111111111

Hamming distance of the code is

(A) 5       (B) 10

(C) 8       (D) 9

Answer: A


  1. Which of the following special cases does not require reformulation of the problem in order to obtain a solution ?

(A) Alternate optimality           (B) Infeasibility

(C) Unboundedness               (D) All of the above

Answer: A


  1. The given maximization assignment problem can be converted into a minimization problem by

(A) subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.

(B) subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table.

(C) adding each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.

(D) adding maximum value of the table to each entry in the table.

Answer: B


  1. The initial basic feasible solution of the following transportion problem :

then the minimum cost is

(A) 76 (B) 78

(C) 80 (D) 82

Answer: A


  1. Given the following equalities :

E1 : nK+Î + nK lg n = q(nK+Î) for all fixed K and Î, K > 0 and Î > 0.

E2 : n32n + 6n23n = O(n32n)

Which of the following is true ?

(A) E1 is correct and E2 is correct.

(B) E1 is correct and E2 is not correct.

(C) E1 is not correct and E2 is correct.

(D) E1 is not correct and E2 is not correct.

Answer: B


  1. Consider the fractional knapsack instance n = 4, (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (10, 10, 12, 18), (w1, w2, w3, w4) = (2, 4, 6, 9) and M = 15. The maximum profit is given by

(Assume p and w denotes profit and weight of objects respectively)

(A) 40     (B) 38

(C) 32     (D) 30

Answer: B


  1. The solution of the recurrence relation of

(A) O(n2)            (B) O(nlg n)

(C) O(n)             (D) O(l g n)

Answer: C


  1. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into a table of size m, where n ≤ m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular key K is

(A) less than 1              (B) less than lg n

(C) greater than 1        (D) greater than lg n

Answer: A


  1. Given the following statements
    :

S1 : The subgraph-isomorphism problem takes two graphs G1 and G2 and asks whether G1 is a subgraph of G2.

S2 : The set-partition problem takes as input a set S of numbers and asks whether the numbers can be partitioned into two sets A

Which of the following is true ?

(A) S1 is NP problem and S2 is P problem.

(B) S1 is NP problem and S2 is NP problem.

(C) S1 is P problem and S2 is P problem.

(D) S1 is P problem and S2 is NP problem.

Answer: B


  1. Suppose that the splits at every level of quicksort are in the proportion (1 – a) to a, where 0 < a ≤ ½ is a constant. The minimum depth of a leaf in the recursion tree is approximately given by

Answer: C


  1. Ten signals, each requiring 3000 Hz, are multiplexed on to a single channel using FDM. How much minimum bandwidth is required for the multiplexed channel ? Assume that the guard bands are 300 Hz wide.

(A) 30,000                     (B) 32,700

(C) 33,000                     (D) None of the above

Answer: B

EXPLANATION:

9 guard band occupies 2700 hz.

10 channels occupies 30000 hz.

So total  bandwidth is 32700.


  1. A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps terminals and ‘n’ 300 bps terminals connected to it. If the outgoing line is 9600 bps, what is the value of n ?

(A) 4       (B) 8

(C) 16     (D) 28

Answer: B


  1. Which of the following is used in the options field of IPv4 ?

(A) Strict source routing         (B) Loose source routing

(C) time stamp                          (D) All of the above

Answer: D


  1. Which layers of the OSI reference model are host-to-host layers ?

(A) Transport, Session, Presentation, Application

(B) Network, Transport, Session, Presentation

(C) Data-link, Network, Transport, Session

(D) Physical, Data-link, Network, Transport

Answer: A


  1. A network on the Internet has a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. What is the maximum number of hosts it can handle ?

(A) 1024            (B) 2048

(C) 4096            (D) 8192

Answer: C


  1. Four bits are used for packed sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size ?

(A) 4       (B) 8

(C) 15     (D) 16

Answer: C


  1. Given the following two grammars :

G1 : S ® AB | aaB

A ® a | Aa

B ® b

G2 : S ® a S b S | b S a S | l

Which statement is correct ?

(A) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is unambiguous.

(B) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.

(C) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is unambiguous.

(D) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.

Answer: D


  1. Match the following :

List – I                                       List – II

  1. Chomsky Normal form       i. S ® b S S | a S | c
  2. Greibach Normal form        ii. S ® a S b | ab
  3. S-grammar                            iii. S ® AS | a

A ® SA | b

  1. LL grammar                          iv. S ® a B S B

B ® b

Codes :

a    b    c   d

(A) iv   iii    i    ii

(B) iv   iii    ii   i

(C) iii   iv    i    ii

(D) iii   iv    ii   i

Answer: C


  1. Given the following two languages :

L1 = {anbn | n ≥ 1} È {a}

L2 = {w C wR | w Î {a, b}*}

Which statement is correct ?

(A) Both L1 and L2 are not deterministic.

(B) L1 is not deterministic and L2 is deterministic.

(C) L1 is deterministic and L2 is not deterministic.

(D) Both L1 and L2 are deterministic.

Answer: D

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